It would be pre-emptive action, not self-defence
As Iran does not, at present, possess the capability of hitting Western targets, a strike can not be considered self-defence, but rather 'pre-emptive' - preventing Iran from being able to attack the West in future. This does not necessarily mean it is unwarranted or unjustified.
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Legal bases for use of force under international law? »Legal bases for use of force under international law?
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Would a military strike meet definition of self-defence? »Would a military strike meet definition of self-defence?
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Military strike on Iran would not be self-defence »Military strike on Iran would not be self-defence
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It would be pre-emptive action, not self-defence
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